Do you think that Calls in Advance is a part of Share Capital? Post category:Accountancy Reading time:1 mins read SOLUTION No. It is not a part of Company’s Share Capital and no dividend is payable on the amount of Calls in advance. Please Share This Share this content Opens in a new window X Opens in a new window Facebook Opens in a new window Pinterest Opens in a new window LinkedIn Opens in a new window Viber Opens in a new window VK Opens in a new window Reddit Opens in a new window Tumblr Opens in a new window Viadeo Opens in a new window WhatsApp Read more articles Previous PostD Ltd. invited applications for issuing 10,00,000 equity shares of Rs. 10 each. The public applied for 8,55,000 shares. Can the company proceed for the allotment of shares? Give reason in support of your answer. (C.B.S.E. 2014. Outside Delhi). Next PostIdentify the purpose of utilizing the ‘Security Premium Reserve’ that would maximise the return to shareholders. You Might Also Like In which ratio do the remaining partners acquire the share of deceased partner? (Delhi and AI 2018 C) October 8, 2022 What is a share? September 28, 2022 State whether conversion of debentures into equity shares by a financing company will result in inflow’, outflow’ or no flow’ of cash. October 4, 2022 Leave a Reply Cancel replyYou must be logged in to post a comment.
In which ratio do the remaining partners acquire the share of deceased partner? (Delhi and AI 2018 C) October 8, 2022
State whether conversion of debentures into equity shares by a financing company will result in inflow’, outflow’ or no flow’ of cash. October 4, 2022